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" This same number on Sanskrit is pronounced 'dwishata tridasha chatwari'.How could this self-evident uniformity be possible?How could' ve these two languages preserved their common ancient pronouncement to such a degree until today?Here is another easily comprehensive and simple example brought by Durga Prasad Shastri: Toy vas dom, etoy nas dom' (Cyrillic: Toj Bam ,zjom, e Toj Hani aom); - on Sanskrit: Tat vas dham, etat nas dham' (English: This is your home, that's our home). Younger Indo-European languages, like English, French or Hindi, must use the verb /is/, without which the sentences given above cannot exist in any one of these languages.
On contrary, in the modern Western European and Indian languages there are no means of preserving the ancient language systems. First, Macedonic are the only European group of languages 1 that share a strong common grammatical base with Sanskrit.
It also tries to reconstruct the primordial Proto-Language.
There's again the enlarged-deductive method, which surclassed the Indo-European linguists by long shot - the linguistic model called "Nashinski" (lat.
Nostratic) that gave the birth of the language Super-families (Providian, Indo-European, Kartvelian, Semitic, Uralic, etc.), and which tries to open new horizons by reconstructing the prehistoric Proto-Language through these Super-families.
One of the oldest known written languages, Sanskrit, was an ancient Indie language of India, in which the Pre-Hindi scriptures and classical Indian epic poems are written and from which many northern Indian languages are derived.
Thus the Sanskrit/Macedonic word for strength still is /silen/, from si-elen (i.e. you're lion) 2 ; as a /lisica/lisca/ or shortly /liya/ (Macedonic word for fox), transformed into the modern Macedonian noun laga (a lie) or the verb lazi.